In our previous post, we examined the sundry texts from which Paul quotes in his great catena of quotations in Rom 3.10-18. But the thought unit is not yet complete; Paul makes his assessment of the implications in 3.19-20. This followup makes Paul’s intent clearer, although it is frequently misread (verse 19, in particular; I think this is likely also the case with verse 20, but my understanding of the verse is still being formed).
Gentiles Under the Law?
Verse 19 offers this perspective on the catena: “Now we know that whatever the law says, to those in the law it speaks, so that every mouth may be closed and all the world may become guilty/liable to God.”
Some misread this statement to mean that Paul thinks that “all the world” is “in the law.” This, however, is not possible. In 2.12, Paul contrasts those who sin “in the law” (identical terminology to 3.19) to those who sin anomos (“apart from the law;” on the analogy of “in the law,” the understanding is “outside the law”). The clear assumption on Paul’s part is that Torah is for Israel, not for Gentiles, who are outside the law’s polity.
When approaching 3.19, it must be recalled that Paul’s imaginary interlocutor is a Jew. The assumption common to Paul and his ostensible argument partner is that Gentiles on the whole are subject to judgment; he does not need the catena in order to demonstrate that. Rather, Paul’s concern has been to show (mostly from the Psalms) that there is no “king’s X” exempting Israel from judgment.
Liability to Judgment
This is crucial to Paul’s argument, because as we have seen, he has already demonstrated in 3.1-8 that Israel as a whole is guilty; but it has been his aim to show that this guilt is not simply to be overlooked. This is why the passages from which he quotes are so consonant with the sort of guilt he has established in the preceding passage: his kinsmen have sinned against God Himself by disbelieving His promises, rejecting His Messiah, and indeed, becoming guilty of His blood. And as it happens, the Psalms from which Paul quotes are all Davidic, and the wicked are defined over against him, just as the righteous are defined in relation to him. Thus we can infer a sort of “how much more” argument: If the wicked were those who opposed David – himself a sinner – and they were held responsible and judged on that account, how much more is it the case with those who oppose the Son of David, the promised Messiah Himself: they are liable for their guilt. (Actually, the “how much more” goes further, as we’ll see in considering v 20a.)
“Liable” is thus likely the sense of hupodikos here, although not a lot rests on that, as Paul’s point involves the guilt involved in the liability. While this is the only appearance in the Bible, BADG identifies liability or answerability as the normal meaning of the term, based on comparisons to Philo and Josephus – despite the fact that English translations of Romans 3.19 often render it “guilty.”
Paul’s Use of Psalm 143: Covenant Lawsuit
This brings us to verse 20, which at first glance appears to put things back into the framework of general lawbreaking: “Because from works of Torah no flesh shall be justified before Him, for through Torah is the knowledge of Sin.”
The first part of verse 20 is a modified allusion to Psalm 143.2 (142.2 LXX). Paul’s text reads, “from works of Torah no flesh shall be justified before Him.” In the LXX, the verse as a whole reads, “And do not enter into judgment with Your servant, because no one living shall be justified before You.” (The LXX sticks very close to the Hebrew in this case.) The latter part of this allusion is nearly identical, except that Paul has substituted “no one living” with “no flesh.” This fits, not only with Paul’s widespread use of flesh in Romans, but also with the connection he makes between flesh and death. Without contradicting the original intention of Psalm 143, Paul wants to say that in a real sense those who are in the flesh are not really living.
As for the rest of Paul’s statement, he has substituted the idea of Yahweh entering into judgment with humans with his own theme phrase “works of Torah.” (One question this raises is whether he is simply bringing Ps 143.2b into the context of his own discussion of works of Torah, or whether in fact works of Torah is in some sense intended to be epexegetical of Yahweh’s entering into judgment with men. We’ll leave this to one side, although it’s fascinating and bears further investigation.) Men will not be justified from works of Torah before Yahweh.
More on that in a moment, but first let’s backtrack.
Psalm 143, as it turns out, is yet another text which mentions (wait for it) the divine righteousness: “Hear my prayer, Yahweh, hearken to my supplications in Your steadfastness; answer in Your righteousness” (Ps 143.1; note also v 11: “For the sake of Your name, Yahweh, preserve me; in Your righteousness bring my soul out of distress”). By my count, that’s now six of eight Old Testament texts referenced in this chapter so far which deal with the righteousness of God in the context. Still think that Paul’s usage of the phrase is independent?
Amazingly enough, given how God’s righteousness is frequently spoken of, the pleas of Psalm 143.1 and 2 contrast two scenarios: one in which Yahweh answers according to His righteousness, and one in which He enters into judgment with His servant. And yet, in association with this latter case, David says that before Yahweh no one living is righteous.
What we find, then, is that the tendency to associate divine judgment with a perfect standard is not utterly wrong. David himself confesses that if Yahweh enters into judgment with anyone, that person is ruined, for before Yahweh, no one living is righteous.
But how can we fit these two sides of the story together?
Let’s start by recognizing what is widely overlooked regarding the nature of judgment in biblical terms. Note what “entering into judgment” entails. It does not simply mean that God is sitting as an impartial judge. To “enter into judgment” with someone means to take opposing sides in a case: prosecutor and accused.
Thus it is not at all inconsistent of David to appeal to Yahweh, “Judge me according to Your righteousness” – or even, “judge me according to my righteousness” (Ps 7.8) when he is seeking aid over against his enemies and his afflictions. Because David knows that Yahweh has covenanted Himself to His people, and He judges in their favour.
But it is an utterly different story if God makes a covenant lawsuit against His own people; then there is no longer a mediary to whom to appeal (cf 1 Sam 2.25). All disputes involve at least one unrighteous party; in any dispute between Yahweh and men, it is certain that no man living can possibly be righteous. (For a biblical instance of a “covenant lawsuit” between Yahweh and His people, see e.g. Micah 6.1-5.)
For whatever reason, then, Paul places “from works of Torah” in place of “entering into judgment.” Whatever that reason is, one thing is clear: the scenario which he is addressing has man in contention – legal dispute – with God Himself. And Paul says that if Yahweh has entered into dispute with men, being an observant Jew isn’t going to cut it.
This again comports well with our reading 3.1-8: Israel has quite literally entered into judgment with Yahweh by prosecuting the Messiah, who in fact is Himself Yahweh. Again, no amount of devotion to works of Torah is going to save them in such a contention.
The second part of 3.20, intended in some way to ground the statement of 3.20a (“for”), sounds somewhat like chapter 7, where Paul says that the law became an occasion of sin for the flesh – like the commandment itself became a temptation (“rules are made to be broken”).
The frequent understanding of the statement in 20b is that the law identifies sins – yet, even given the factors of chapter 7, it’s hard to think that understanding the argument in that fashion does not produce a non sequitur.
But there is a further problem: Paul does not say that through the law is the knowledge of sins (plural), but sin (singular). This is why I have capitalized Sin in my translation above. As we progress through Romans, we find that Sin is not simply an abstraction of individual misdeeds (although it certainly is reflected in such misdeeds); it is a power which rules over all men in Adam (e.g. 5.12), a power broken only by union with Christ who conquered it in His death (6.6ff).
“Knowledge” here probably doesn’t simply refer to an intellectual apprehension of something; Paul seems to be using the term in the more full-orbed biblical sense that entails experiencing something from the inside out. The fullest experience of Sin, the power, is discovered within the context of Torah. This is true, in part, because it specifies commandments and prohibitions, just as the tree was specifically prohibited to Adam. Thus one’s experience under the law involves awareness that is not the case outside of it.
However, there still seems to be more involved than that. Paul writes, not merely that Torah identifies sins, as we’ve mentioned; he says that “the law came in to increase the trespass, but where Sin increased, grace abounded all the more” (5.20). Sin comes to be “accounted” in the context of Torah (5.13), to the effect that Torah brings wrath, while where there is no Torah there is no transgression (4.15).
Verse 3.20b is likely a summary statement of what Paul says later, then. The statements of chapter 7 are certainly related to this, but if anything, this verse is closer to the more foundational thoughts in chapter 5, particularly 5.20: the law entered in order to increase the trespass.
Whatever else we may say regarding 3.20b (and 5.20 etc), one thing should be clear. Being under Torah – indeed, being devoted to Torah’s works – is not itself the deliverance of Israel. Rather, in some way Torah has provoked Israel’s rebellion to the degree that she has disbelieved and entered into judgment against her Messiah and her God – all in the name of the law itself. This reveals the extent of Israel’s trouble. She is under Sin, and under judgment; she has entered into a court dispute with Yahweh Himself, where no flesh will be justified.
Tim,
Thanks so much for these posts – they’re really helpful. Sorry if the answer is already there for those who read the post properly but any chance of a sentence or two on why Paul does use kosmos at the end of v.19. I wasn’t sure whether this itself was part of the “how much more” argument and, if so, who is included in ‘every mouth’ and ‘whole world’. Is it the ‘all Jews’ to whom I reckon ‘those in the law’ of 19 and ‘flesh’* of 20 refer? Or is it wider?
*[I actually think that on many, but not all, occasions, "flesh" in Romans should be read as "Israel, disempowered by its Adamic solidarity, during the period and under the condemnation of Torah"]
Thanks again for these posts.
David Field
David, thanks for the question. It helps draw my attention to things that I haven’t made clear, although it should be noted that I’m not attempting a full-fledged commentary; as the titles indicate, I’m focusing on how the OT passages play into Paul’s argument. Of course, it’s impossible to isolate that from the rest….
To your question whether “every mouth” and “whole world” refers to Jews: No, I’d say “world” and the “all” of 3.9 would be coextensive; Paul really does mean “world.” That’s why I made the point about the shared agreement between Paul and his interlocutor regarding the Gentiles: Paul only needs to add Israel into the mix in order to come up with a sum of “the whole world.” That’s why “those under [in] the law” and “the whole world” don’t need to be coextensive for Paul’s statement to make sense. Thinking mathematically: x + y = z; x is a given, now I’ve demonstrated y; ergo, z, if you will.
I think that “world” in John may function differently. As for “flesh,” I think Paul speaks of the entire aeon prior to Christ (and all those outside of Him subsequently) as “flesh.” This finds it focus in Israel for two reasons: 1) so much of his concern is with a Jewish “interlocutor;” and 2) Torah provokes the problem of the flesh rather than solving it. Thus there is a sense in which Sin and flesh find their focal point in Israel. See Galatians 4, where the stoicheia – “elements of the world” (kosmos) – refer not only to the idolatries of the nations but also to Torah.
The additional factor I mentioned in the how much more argument refers to the fact that the Messiah is Yahweh Himself. I guess I didn’t make that explicit.
Tim,
Great. Many thanks for this.
So, 3.19:
1. From what I’ve said in these recent verses you’ll see that there’s no doubt that the Jews are charged (and guilty as charged).
2. You already know that Gentiles are charged (and guilty as charged).
3. SO, that’s everyone covered.
This is helpful. But if we have universalized in 3.19b, then
a) either the “flesh” of 20a is Jewish – in which case we’ve narrowed again and have to account for dioti OR
b) the “flesh” of 20a is universal – in which case talking about it not being justified by works of law is (at least partly) redundant / irrelevant since the Gentiles component of this universal are not in or under torah (which is why – vv27-29 – if it’s going to be universal, it can’t be a torah-thing).
But neither a) nor b) are terribly satisfying. And I’m stuck.
Unless the universalizing of 3.19b is parenthetical and 3.20a resumes from 3.19a.
Sorry if this is unclear. Grateful for any thoughts.
David
Tim, I am fairly sure that world does not mean world. It means Israel, just as in John 3.16 where the world is Israel, and in other places where the earth is the land of Canaan, not the planet.
FWIW.
Curate, I’m even more sure that “world” does mean world. :) (It of course does not mean “the planet”; it usually means the world of men, and surely does here.)
1) In the broader context, when Paul says that the Romans’ faith is spoken of throughout “the whole kosmos (1.8), he surely does not mean “the whole land of Israel.” (Of course, as with his contemporaries, “world” primarily referred to the known oikumene.)
2) In the narrower context of 3.1-8, Paul says that Israel is guilty, even though God is glorified through her misdeed. For, if God did not work in this way, how would He judge the kosmos (3.6)? He is working from an agreed upon principle (Yahweh will judge the world as a whole) to show that God is not beholden to anyone on the basis of the argument adduced (viz, that even the sin of men redounds to His own glory).
3) When Paul claims that the promise to Abraham was that he would be heir of the kosmos, he is not simply referring to the land of Canaan, as the context has to do with the inclusion of Gentiles with the circumcised in the Abrahamic people.
4) Sin and death entered the kosmos before Israel even existed (5.12).
5) The fall of Israel actually means riches for the kosmos, which is parallel to Gentiles (11.12; cf 11.15).
Thus, the creation-wide context of Paul’s discussion throughout Romans – he is pressing the point against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men in ch 1; he is saying that those under the law will be judged under/by the law, while those outside it will be judged without it (ch 2); that all died and came under Sin in Adam (ch 5).
Again, look at the way Paul uses the terminology in Galatians 4, when he talks about the elements of the world. Speaking to Gentiles who (he says) had previously served worthless idols, now when they endeavour to turn to Torah he says they are turning again to the weak and beggarly elements – i.e. of the kosmos.
As I noted, I’m open to the argument (though not absolutely sold) that John uses kosmos in a narrower sense. But don’t assume identity between Johannine and Pauline terminology; John uses sarx, for instance, to refer to the body of the risen Christ; Paul wouldn’t use the term that way, because in his usage sarx is a pre-eschatological condition.
David, I don’t think we’re stuck at all. The reference to works of Torah is a delimiter to the reference. I don’t think that’s unusual in the least.
To put it another way, consider these two statements: “All people shall die. No people will escape dying by extraordinary medical measures.”
Would you say that the first instance must only refer to people who resort to “extraordinary medical measures”? Not at all.
Paul’s point is that Israel too is liable and guilty with the whole world, and even works of Torah will not grant them escape from that predicament.
Tim,
Thanks again for this.
Bear with me, please because I’ve a horrible feeling that I’m just being a bit thick. But am I understanding you rightly to say that these are the referents?
1) those in law – Jews
2) every mouth and the whole world – Jews and Gentiles, the lot
3) flesh – Jews and Gentiles, the whole lot
?
If so, then it’s still the logic that escapes me.
a) the logic of hina in this would be less, “so that …” than “so that, with what we already know we’d now be in a position to conclude that … “. Am I reading you correctly?
b) and the logic of dioti is … what? After all, if in the example you give, you insert dioti: “All people shall die dioti no people will escape dying by extraordinary medical measures” then how does that work?
Apols if I still haven’t heard properly what you’re saying and many thanks again for taking time on this.
Blessings
David
Tim, I am certainly not arguing for a universal meaning of “world”. Context is everything in these matters. I am suggesting that world in Ro 3 is Israel.
Have a look at John 1:10: He was in the world, and the world was made through Him, and the world did not know Him.
The world that the Lord was in was Israel, and only Israel. As far as I can tell he did not go to England and build Jerusalem in England’s green and pleasant land. :) Neither did he preach to the Gentiles, but to his own, who did not know him.
In short, all I am suggesting is that in Rom. 3:19 Paul is speaking of those who are under the law, Israel, and that in this context world means Israel just as it does in John.
Now, the promise of the kosmos to Abraham in Ro 4 seems at first glance to support my thesis, since at no time was he promised the planet, but just one bit of it. Tom Wright goes with your reading there, but it niggles at me.
Sparking another thought, in Acts 1 the disciples are to preach to Israel until the end of the land, the destruction of the Temple. Most translations read “to the end/s of the earth”, but it should read “until the end of the land”.
What should read “land” is made into “earth” a different referent!
I wonder if world/Israel is parallel with earth/land in places. Hmm.
David, I would say the dioti (because) clause is probably primarily explicative of the v 19 statement about every mouth being stopped, although I don’t think that’s necessary to my point; it could be that Paul is using it slightly more loosely with reference to the main point of his conclusion (viz Israel is liable to judgment for her guilt). Remember again that on the basis of the analogy I adduced, this approach doesn’t require that v 19 refer only to Israel.
Curate, I’ve already established the point from the context. It seems to me the burden of proof is clearly on your shoulders, but you haven’t borne it. In fact, you haven’t even shown it from the passage in John you cite. (Israel is part of the world; Jesus didn’t have to go all over the creation in order to be in the world etc. These observations are only strengthened by the fact that John builds squarely on Gen 1 in the opening verses of his Gospel.)
But again, set John aside. You need to demonstrate that Paul uses kosmos in the way you suggest – ever! – beyond that, you need to show why limiting the term in Romans 3 is preferable, which means that you need to deal with the examination of the context I’ve provided. This contextual issue must not only make sense of theme, but terminology. It seems to me that if kosmos in 3.20 meant only Israel, then it would need to mean that also in 3.6, which would make nonsense of Paul’s form of argument.
The references to Acts are not really germane (other than with the thought in Rom 4), as our discussion here has to do with kosmos. I’m well aware that ge can refer to either the earth as a whole or the “land,” i.e. Israel.
I do stand by the Romans 4 reading, though; and I also suggest Paul is building squarely on the Genesis promises that Yahweh would bless all the families of the earth (LXX ge) in Abraham. If the families of the earth are in Abraham – a point made even clearer in Galatians 3 – then Abraham inherits the earth through them. Moreover, with reference to Romans 4, “the promise” is specified in v 13 that Abraham and his seed would be heir of the ge; in vv 16-17, “the promise” is guaranteed to all Abraham’s seed – not only to those who are from Torah, but also all those who share Abraham’s faith; this is directly parallel to what Paul has already said in 4.11-12. In sum, “the seed” which receives the promise is not only circumcised Israel, but uncircumcised Gentiles who believe.
David, another way of saying this, if necessary.
Paul and his fellow Jewish interlocutor agree that God will judge the world. Good. They agree that normally, there is liability for guilt. Good.
But where do Paul and the interlocutor diverge?
The interlocutor assumes that if anyone is not going to be held liable, it is the one, like himself, who is Torah-observant. And if he is not held liable, Paul’s charge against himself is void.
So Paul says: all the world is liable before God – because [dioti] even those who are Torah-observant will not be justified if (as in the scenario of Ps 143) God enters into judgment with them.
Not sure if that’s clearer for you or not….
Just exploring possibilities Tim.
Rom. 3:19 Now we know that whatever the law says, it says to those who are under the law, that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty before God.
Perhaps this has been said, but how about this: all the world means all the world, but instead of having the Gentiles in his sights, it is still Israel, as I have been suggesting.
It would work this way: the Gentiles have been shown to be worthy of death, and this is something that every ethnocentric Jew would have agreed with. Thus “all the world” here means that it is not just Gentile mouths that are stopped, but Jewish ones too – contrary to Jewish expectations.
I would imagine that when a Jew heard “all the world” he mentally excluded Israel from that category. Paul uses the same language to reverse the unconscious exclusion.
Curate, yes, that’s pretty much along the lines of what I’ve been arguing in the posted articles. Perhaps we can put an implied stress on all in “all the world” in the sense of “all the world – not just Gentiles.” Compare 3.9, where Paul says that Jews don’t have an advantage over Gentiles (“we” and “they”) when it comes to matters of sin and judgment.
Does the historical context of Gentiles converting to Judaism and being circumcised, seeking justification before God in that, help with David’s logical problem? Not only the Jews are liable and guilty, not only the Gentiles, but also those Gentiles who seek to be under Torah…
Very interesting posts.
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